1) What statement best describes TimeFinder/Mirror Clone?
Uses copy on access
2) Which of the views in ControlCenter Console displays Front EndDirectors, Disk Directors, and all the devices for a Symmetrix array?
3) Which is a feature of TimeFinder/Snap related to data accessibility after snap session is initiated?
Data is accessible on the Snap copy immediately after the Snap session is initiated
4) What is the difference between theNSXXXG and the NSXXX?
NSXXXG allows the sharing of back-end storage with other hosts
5) Which views in the ControlCenter Console can be used to monitor the environment?
6) Which is monitored by the ControlCenter Host agent?
Windows 2000 disk
7) What is a benefit of SRDF/Automated Replication solution?
The SRDF/Automated Replication solution provides a copy of the data on the Target device, which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source
8) What is correct sequence for starting a ControlCenter component?
Repository, Server, Store
9) What is the purpose of a TimeFinder/Mirror reverse split operation?
The BCV will synchronize from its mirror
10) After a client has presented information to be stored on Centera, what is the next step?
Unique Content Address is calculated
11) What is the purpose of Dynamic Mirror Service Policy for Symmetrix?
It uses both M1 and M2 mirrors to fulfill read requests as quickly as possible.
12) Is routing same on all operating systems?
No. Routing is not the same on all operating systems
13) Is routing same on all UNIX OS?
No. Routing is not the same on UNIX operating systems
14) Will all switches route multicast traffic by default ?
No. Not all switches will route multicast traffic by default.
15) What command will you make use of to get details on routing table in windows or Linux systems?
To observe the routing table on a UNIX/Linux or Windows server, you should use the netstate – nr command
16) What information is displayed on the Availability Tracking screen?
The amount of planned downtime of a managed resource.
17) What causes the data source to report an unknown state?
The agent failed or shut down
18) How should you determine which ports to use for the AAM installation?
Use the ft_setup script to view available ports during installation
19) What tasks can occur on a secondary agent?
Restart the backbone, Maintain a copy of the database
20) A system administrator is monitoring the AAM domain and notices that a Resource Group is in the unknown state. What does this state indicate?
The agent on the node hosting the Resource group is in the failed state.
21) What is a key requirement of Content Addressed Storage?
22) What failover and failback does Celerra SRDF/A support?
Supports a manual failover and failback process
23) What are Virtual DataMovers also called as VDMs ?
They are dedicated CIFS servers
24) In a Centera, what is the minimum node configuration of Generation 4 Hardware?
25) Which statement about WINS is correct?
Resolves UNC names to IP address
26) With an IP network address of 188.8.131.52 and a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0 without
enabling 1 bit subnetting, what would be the broadcast address on the first subnet?
27) With a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, how many subnets are possible without enabling 1
28) Which statement about NetBIOS is correct?
It is a non-routable protocol, without encapsulation into another protocol
29) What is an operation of the OSI Transport layer?
Provides a reliable message stream to the user interface
30) Which statement about Network backup is correct?
The tape device is directly attached to the backup server
31) Which port is the default port used by HTTP Web Browsers?
32) What is a function of NetWorker?
Protect critical business data
33) Which statement about Layer 3 devices is correct?
Connect two different logical networks together
34) Which Centera GUI tool is used to configure site specific information?
35) In Network backup are permissions on NFS and CIFS files simultaneously preserved?
NFS and CIFS permissions on the same file system are not simultaneously preserved
36) What is a NetWorker remote device?
A device managed by a storage node other than the NetWorker server
37) What are features of a NetWorker storage node?
Manages devices, generates tracking data, and supports multiplexing
38) In a Centera, what is an Access Profile?
Used by applications to authenticate to a Cluster
39) What is a characteristic of Centera?
Single instance storage
40) What is the Address Resolution Protocol responsible for resolving in Direct Routing?
The MAC address of a known IP address
41) Which statement about Synchronous transmissions is correct?
Multiple characters are transmitted at a time
42) What is the Address Resolution Protocol responsible for resolving in Indirect Routing?
The MAC address of the Default gateway
43) What is a function of NetWorker?
Centralize and automate backup and recovery
44) With IP version four IPv4 addresses, how many octets make up the address?
45) With IPv6, what is the size of the address space?
46) What is the maximum number of DataMovers supported in the NS5XX range of equipment?
47) For what purpose are Class D IPv4 addresses used?
48) Which event occurs in a NetWorker server-initiated backup but NOT in a client-initiated
Bootstrap save is created
49) Which of the following protocols is used to share the filesystem to clients in the
50) What is the purpose of the TimeFinder/SRDF QoS Task Bar in ControlCenter?
51) Which of the following is the last step of retrieving an object in the Centera environment?
Centera delivers object authentically
52) How many octets in a default Class B IPv4 address make up the network portion?
53) What is the maximum number of Blades supported in the NSX range of equipment?
54) How many optical network ports are available on a NSX Blade?
55) What does SNMP normally use?
The non-guaranteed services of UDP